Another birth certificate question
I've obtained a birth certificate from 1971 and the informant is the mother. Father (mother's husband) is named and where the informant's signature goes it says "(her name) by declaration dated (3 days before registration)". I believe at the time the parents were separated and there was some question about paternity -would this explain the declaration?
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Someone correct me, but I think declaration is made where the birth is registered outside the local district. This might be (in case of the father) is he worked some distance from home. Or was the baby born in a hospital some way from where the mother lived?
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The father was living with another woman at the time but there's no indication of this on the certificate. The child was born in hospital local within the RD and the home address is also within the RD
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Asa, did you get the cert from the local office? (and is it a photocopy?)
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I just wondered if the reg could have been done by declaration because the mother was not well enough to attend the reg office? Otherwise, I agree with what Phoenix said!
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It's a photocopy from GRO about 5 weeks after the birth - I don't *think* there were any health problems with the mother at this time so this would mean because the was living away, the mother made a declaration to say he was the father? Is that right?
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She wouldn't need to if they were married.
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But if she was not at home and staying somewhere out of district she would have had to make a declaration if she went into a not-local-to-the-birth reg office.
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Thanks Merry & Phoenix - it's odd then. Usual address is in nearby town and birth at usual maternity hospital in nearby town
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Might she have been staying with parents or something, if she had a new baby and her husband wasn't involved?
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